I was wondering if someone could check my analysis on a chord progression.
Some background: I tried to write a chord progression where the lowest note descends chromatically. Inversions were necessary. Essentially it's spelled out:
Bm7(no 5th) / Bb+ / A / E / G / D / F / Em
Assuming this is in A, the best I've manged to do with it is:
1. The Bm7(no 5th) functions as a ii7.
2. The Bb+ : If an augmented triad can sub as a dominant chord, I'm assuming it can work in a tritone substitution as well. This was the best way for me to justify the progression being in A. Otherwise, I have NO idea how this functions or whether it's "kosher". Voice leading perhaps?
3. The A functions as a I.
4. The E functions as a V.
Here is where I get a bit stumped. Has a key change to C occurred (or if we're thinking modally, G Mixolydian) or is there just borrowing from the parallel minor? The Em at the end works as a plagal cadence back to the Bm7, so the pieces seem to fit to my ears. I know there's a bit of "Hotel California" going on here as well.
Admittedly, none of this was premeditated, I went with what sounded best to my ears, but now I'm trying to figure out how to explain it.
Many thanks in advance!