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Posted by bdowning27 
December 18, 2019 02:40PM
Hello all,

I've heard about this theory called 'omnitonality.' Apparently Franz Liszt got really into it in his later years. The theory was developed by Francois-Joseph Fétis. I'm wondering if anyone here could enlighten me with some notated examples or examples in music literature.

I get the impression that by 'omnitonality' Fétis is just suggesting that any chord can be enharmonically reinterpreted to be a function in 'all' other keys at one time but I'm just not exactly positive on this. So I would love to have any input, ideas, or references from the community.

Re: Omnitonality?
December 21, 2019 11:06AM
its seems to be an interesting, yet rather advanced topic...meanwhile you might enjoy harmonizing (using either counterpoint or another technique) simple melodies (cantus firmus, etc.) into either Subdominant (IV) or Dominant (V) harmonic frameworks...just recall Prokofiev's quote "There are still so many beautiful things to be said in C major"...;-) greetings
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